The definition used by the courts
And that is what?
Put up a nativity display on public property, and anyone can sue to have any religious display put up on public property.
And they will win.
Show me a record of that.
That's what has been happening, instead of saying "You can't up a religious display on public property", the courts say "Your government can choose to allow religious displays, as long as all religious displays are allowed, the 1st amendment doesn't prohibit religious displays, it prohibits favoring one religion over another."
You'll have to substantiate what definition of religion you're using. By itself, belief or lack of belief in a God wouldn't qualify as a "religion" to begin with.
Most of "religion" or even the Bible isn't even about mythology, as opposed to other concepts such as legal or moral systems and codes.
As an example:
en.wikipedia.org
Satan represents vengeance instead of turning the other cheek.
Per the beliefs of Satanism, if one were to become a vigilante and seek vengeance and murder someone for some imagined wrong, this would be fine according to their religion.
However the US legal system would still prosecute them for homicide if they did so.
So in practice, our legal system already favors certain religions or religious ideas (e.x. "thou shalt not murder) over ones which approve of murder, it doesn't have to "allow all" (even without defining what "all" are to begin with).
All of the supernatural is imaginary
That doesn't define what "supernatural" is, nor what "imaginary is".
If anything which isn't "natural" is supernatural, then all thoughts are "supernatural", regardless of what their content is (scientific, mythological, political, and so forth).
So your beliefs and opinions about... er… Donald Trump are "imaginary".
At least that is what the evidence supports...
That's the same argument from authority fallacy regarding Francis Bacon's method which has been debunked several times.
Your reference to Bacon's method or empiricism isn't based on having gathered the evidence yourself, but rather faith in the method or the people who've told you about the evidence.
If you reference Voltaire, your mental conception of Voltaire is imaginary - that doesn't mean that imagined concepts don't correspond to something - tangible or abstract.
Except we have proof that Voltaire existed, we have images, we have contemporary references, we have documents, we have his signature, we have accounts of eyewitnesses.
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By the same token, we have proof of that Jesus existed, so ideas about Jesus would be no more imaginary than ideas about Voltaire (this is different than arguing about assertions of Jesus' divinity).
Historical evidence is not something under the scope of Francis Bacon's method, so you're merely dismissing one set of ideas on the basis of it not existing within the scope of Bacon's method (which was not the only method even during the Enlightenment era in which it originated), but not others.
We have none of that to support the belief in a God
It wouldn't be "we" to begin with, since in your case you're merely putting faith in a specific definition of evidence, or those who use that method, rather than having gathered and tested the evidence yourself.
By the same standard, Constitutional rights do not exist within the scope of Bacon's method, nor are they "natural" - so you're referencing one definition of evidence for the "existence of God", and another for the existence of other nonscientific concepts, such as the Constitution, or rights - which by your own definition, would be imaginary or "supernatural".