How did public opinion on racism change so drastically between 1945-1970?

Aug 2017
34
14
Florida, USA
#1
This is related to the last question I posted, but I thought I would rephrase it so I could get closer to the issue.

Prior to World War II, Europe and the United States were obviously very racist places. The worst of which being Nazi Germany.

By 1965, both the USA and UK had passed legislation making it illegal to discriminate based on race.

But it didn't happen immediately. There were still signs that said "Whites Only" in the USA and "No Blacks, No Irish" in the UK after World War II.

Counterculture (hippie) movements sprang up in the early 1960's, even in Germany who had just been Nazi 20 years prior.

How could Germany possibly have gone from Nazi to hippie in 20 years?

There must have been some outside forces at play that were forcing this to happen and forcing public opinion to change.
 
Likes: 1 person
Dec 2015
13,242
12,088
Arizona
#2
This is related to the last question I posted, but I thought I would rephrase it so I could get closer to the issue.

Prior to World War II, Europe and the United States were obviously very racist places. The worst of which being Nazi Germany.

By 1965, both the USA and UK had passed legislation making it illegal to discriminate based on race.

But it didn't happen immediately. There were still signs that said "Whites Only" in the USA and "No Blacks, No Irish" in the UK after World War II.

Counterculture (hippie) movements sprang up in the early 1960's, even in Germany who had just been Nazi 20 years prior.

How could Germany possibly have gone from Nazi to hippie in 20 years?

There must have been some outside forces at play that were forcing this to happen and forcing public opinion to change.


So you're going to continue to ask basically the same question over and over, hoping for different responses? Isn't that the definition of insanity?

Your question (in any format) is still the same. It's been asked AND answered. Move on.
 
Likes: 1 person
Aug 2017
34
14
Florida, USA
#3
So you're going to continue to ask basically the same question over and over, hoping for different responses? Isn't that the definition of insanity?

Your question (in any format) is still the same. It's been asked AND answered. Move on.
No it hasn't been answered. What shaped public opinion during this time, which you probably don't even know the answer.
 
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Aug 2017
34
14
Florida, USA
#5
Television and then Digitalization. You can't so easily hide behind your white hoods anymore. Sunshine is the best disinfectant.
True that might have helped AFTER racism was already criminalized.

But it took a radical shift in government policy in order to make racism illegal.

Even Winston Churchill was extremely racist and he was one of the "good guys."

I'm not so much talking about the American south as I am Europe. I realize that power shifted from Europe to the USA, but Europe had been "doing their thing" for a long time for it to just change so quickly not only in government but in public opinion as well.

But I guess that was one hell of a war wasn't it? As if the first one wasn't bad enough.

But it still seems like there must have been some government mandate that forced people's opinions to change similar to how the Japanese were no longer allowed to practice state Shintoism.

Even if government policy had changed following WWII, there must have been some way that the government forced the opinion of the ignorant masses to change.
 
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Likes: 1 person
Jun 2013
28,648
15,219
Ohio
#6
True that might have helped AFTER racism was already criminalized.

But it took a radical shift in government policy in order to make racism illegal.

Even Winston Churchill was extremely racist and he was one of the "good guys."

I'm not so much talking about the American south as I am Europe. I realize that power shifted from Europe to the USA, but Europe had been "doing their thing" for a long time for it to just change so quickly not only in government but in public opinion as well.

But I guess that was one hell of a war wasn't it? As if the first one wasn't bad enough.

But it still seems like there must have been some government mandate that forced people's opinions to change similar to how the Japanese were no longer allowed to practice state Shintoism.

Even if government policy had changed following WWII, there must have been some way that the government forced the opinion of the ignorant masses to change.
Just the opposite. Television made the masses more aware. I know for a fact that the images of the abuses in the south during the 50's started showing up on television screens for the first time. The masses pressured politicians to change. That is how democracy is supposed to work.
 
Likes: 2 people
Apr 2013
34,274
23,154
Left coast
#7
In Europe, one strong factor at least was the full impact of the Nazi "cleansing" getting more and more publicized and realized. The backlash against that and the feelings of guilt helped hasten the move to outlawing discrimination.
 
Likes: 2 people
Feb 2015
1,524
803
upnorth
#8
Just the opposite. Television made the masses more aware.
LOL!! :lol:

The main purposes of teevee are to keep the masses from finding out what's really going on, to conceal the bloody history of the Bolshevik Revolution, to conceal how the world's banking systems operate and to promote a one world government.

How enlightening! :blink:
 
Mar 2017
951
528
Massachusetts
#9
Television and then Digitalization. You can't so easily hide behind your white hoods anymore. Sunshine is the best disinfectant.
>digitalization

Microprocessors weren't comercially available until the early 70s, and even then they weren't widespread until a bit later.

As for television, well that's sort of a deference of the question. Its more important to ask what was being shown on television and by whom.